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Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh lớp 9 Hải Dương 2014-2015 - Học Toàn Tập

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Sở giáo dục v o to


hảI d-ơng


Kì thi chọn học sinh giỏi tỉnh Lớp 9 THCS
năm học 2014 2015


MƠNthi : TiÕng Anh
Thêi gian lµm bµi: 150 phót


Ngày thi: 24/3/2015
(Đề thi gồm 06 trang)
Thớ sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi, không làm bài vo .


Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết ph-ơng án chọn A hc B,
C, D...


Phần tự luận : Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài.
(Thí sinh khơng đ-ợc sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì.)


A. LISTENING


H-íng dÉn phÇn thi Nghe hiĨu:


Trong phần thi Nghe hiểu thí sinh được nghe 2 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc các phần nghe có tín
hiệu. Thí sinh có thời gian đọc câu hỏi trước khi nghe nội dung bài. Mọi hướng dẫn (bằng tiếng
Anh) có trong bài nghe.


I. You will hear five different people giving some information about what they do . Listen and
decide what each person's job is.



trainer reporter football player TV presenter champion


1. Speaker A :...
2. Speaker B :...
3. Speaker C :...
4. Speaker D :...
5. Speaker E :...


II. Listen to the conversation between two friends and fill in each gap with the missing
information. (10 points)


Bill : Hey, this is Bill. I’m sorry I’m not in. Just (6) ________ a message.


Hank: Hey, Bill. This is Hank. I’m just (7) ________ to let you know that I’ll be a little (8)
________ to the game tomorrow (9) ________ . I have to work a few extra (10) ________ to
finish a (11) ________ . I should wrap things up sometime (12) ________ seven and eight though.
Oh, then I’m (13) ________ on dropping by Lisa’s house for about an hour since she’s been (14)
________ recently. Oh, uh, one more thing. I’ll swing by my house to (15) ________ some food
for the game. See you then.


B. Phonetics


I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
( 2.0 points)


16. A. sacred B. wicked C. naked D. stopped


17. A. convenient B. explosion C. collapse D. position



II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others. ( 3.0 points)
18. A. surprise B. distance C. answer D. spirit


19. A. explanation B. federation C. computation D. television



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20. A. appreciate B. participate C. demonstrate D. considerate
C. GRAMMAR-VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS


I. Choose the word, phrase, or expression that best completes each sentence below. ( 15 points)
21. My cousin runs a business………. he proves to have managerial skills.


A. but B. and C. however D. moreover


22. What a ……….. villa!


A. nice big new B. new big nice C. new nice big D. nice new big
23. Bob always talks as if he ……… everything.


A. knows B. had known C. knew D. not know


24. As a teacher, I think that there’s no point in ……….. lazy students.


A. to teach B. teaching C. teach D. have taught


25. I think we should obey and respect our parents and teachers, ………...?


A. do I B. don’t I C. should we D. shouldn’t we



26. It’s high time you ……….. harder to make you parents happy.


A. study B. to study C. studying D. studied


27. After he ……….. working, he turned off the machines.


A. finishes B. had finished C. has finished D. was finished


28. Mrs. Thuy can’t remember the name of the restaurant ……….. she ate her favourite boiled
chicken.


A. which B. whose C. where D. whom


29. Jane always tries to ……….. her neighbours.


A. take part on B. take part in C. get on with D. come up with
30. Hoang is accustomed ……….. for half an hour every morning.


A. to jog B. to jogging C. with jogging D. being jogged


31. I got a bad mark in the English test last week. I wish ……….. I harder.


A. would study B. studied C. had studied D. will study


32. Mrs. Dao hates ……….. lies.


A. be telling B. to tell C. being told D. have been told
33. They ……….. Mr. David to let them use his car for some days.


A. said B. talked C. asked D. suggested



34. The more you talk about the matter, ……….. .


A . the situation seems worse B. the worse seems the situation
C. the situation seems the worse D. the worse the situation seems
35. Tuan made an important ……….. .


A. decide B. decisive C. decision D. deciding


II. Give the right form of the words in brackets. ( 5.0 points)


36. I have great ……….. for her intelligence. admire


37. Mr. Cuong is a very ……….. teacher. Create



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39. It is becoming ………... clear that this problem will not be easily solved. increase
40 . I am sorry about the big mistake. I ……….. the instructions you gave me. Understand
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that need correcting. ( 5.0 points )
41. The simplest way to reduce pollution in the city is ban cars from downtown.


A B C D


42. The letter was sent by special delivery must be important.


A B C D


43. At first, they did not make out what the teacher was trying to explain, but gradual they



A B C D


began to understand.


44. The four – days working week will certainly be a reality, so we will have more time for


A B C D


leisure activities.


45. Daisy, along with her cousins from Manchester, are planning to attend the party.
A B C D


IV. Match one sentence in column A with one appropriate response in column B. Use each
response only ONCE. There are two extra responses. (5.0 points )


A B


46. Would you recommend a place for
sightseeing?


47. Would you like me to help you with the
suitcase?


48. I’m fed up with this weather. It’s so wet
and unpleasant.


49. Could I use your phone, please?
50. Let’s do something special, shall we?



A. I know. We really need some
sunshine, don’t we?


B. Well, I would like to see that.
C. What do you fancy doing?
D. Yes, please, if it’s not bother.


E. How about Yellowstone National
Park?


F. I’m sorry, I need it myself.
G. So do I.


D. READING:


I-Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to complete each gap. (10 points)
During the (51) ____ years, many young people can at times be difficult to talk to. They often
seem to dislike being questioned. They may seem (52) ____ to talk about their work at school. This
is a normal (53) ____ of this age. Though it can be very hard for parents to understand, it is part of
becoming (54) ____ of teenagers trying to be adult while they are still growing up. Young people
are usually unwilling to talk if they believe that questions are trying to (55) ____ up on them.



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51. A. childhood B. teenage C. recent D. early


52. A. unrestrained B. unworried C. unexpected D. unwilling


53. A. circumstance B. appearance C. development D. achievement



54. A. confident B. independent C. dependent D. free


55. A. check B. catch C. keep D. make


56. A. good B. best C. better D. well


57. A. put B. allow C. push D. expect


58. A. approach B. experience C. experiment D. attach


59. A. unusual B. unacceptable C. normal D. exemplary


60. A. appropriate B. proper C. important D. necessary
II. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (10 points)


Food plays an important part in the development of nations. In countries where food is scare, people
have to (61) ____ most of their time getting enough to eat. This usually slows (62) ____ progress,
because men have little time to (63) ____ to science, industry, government, and art. In nations (64)
____ food is plentiful and easy to get, men have more time to spend on activities that lead to
progress and enjoyment of leisure. The (65) ___ of providing good food for everybody has not (66)
___ solved. Many wars have been fought for food. But it is (67) ____ longer necessary to go to
wars for food. Nations (68) ___ beginning to put scientific knowledge to work for a (69) ___ of
their food problems. They work together in the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) to
(70)____ hungry nations produce more food.


III. Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question. (5 points)


At the age of sixty-five, Laura Ingalls Wilder began writing a series of novels for young
people based on her early experiences on the American frontier . Born in the state of Wiscosin in
1867, she and her family were rugged pioneers. Seeking better farm land, they went by covered


wagon to Missouri in 1869, then on to Kansas the next year, returning to Wisconsin in 1871, and
traveling on to Minnesota and Lowa before settling permanently in South Dakota in 1879. Because
of this continuing moving, Wilder's early education took place sporadically in a succession of
one-room schools. From age thirteen to sixteen she attended school more regularly although she never
graduated.


At the age of eighteen, she married Almanzo James Wilder. They bought a small farm in the
Ozarks, where they remained for the rest of their lives. Their only daughter, Rose, who had become
a nationally known journalist, encouraged her mother to write. Serving as agent and editor, Rose
negotiated with Harper's to publish her mother's first book, Little House on the Big Woods. Seven
more books followed, each chronicling her early life on the plains. Written from the perspective of a
child, they have remained popular with young readers from many nations. Twenty years after her
death in 1957, more than 20 million copies had been sold, and they had been translated into
fourteen languages. In 1974, a weekly television series, "Little House on the Prairie ", was
produced based on the stories from the Wilder books.


71. What is the main topic of the passage?



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C. A weekly television series D. American pioneer life


72. The author mentions all of the following events in the life of Laura Ingalls Wilder
EXCEPT __________.


A. She married Almanzo Wilder. B. She graduated from a one-room school.
C. She went west by covered wagon. D. She had one daughter.


73. Wilder's early education took place _______.



A. for a long time B. at irregular intervals


C. with great success D. in a very efficient way


74. The word they refers to ____.


A. many nations B. the plains C. more books D. young readers


75. It can be referred from the passage that_______.
A. Wilder's daughter was not a successful writer.
B. the Wilders were not happy living in the Ozarks.


C. Laura Ingalls Wilder wrote scripts for the television series.
D. the Wilders books have a universal appeal.


E. WRITING:


I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence given before it. (5.0 points)


76. The programme was so successful that they decided to produce the 2nd season.
→ So ……….. .
77. My father works in a company which has more than a thousand employers.
→ There are ……….… .
78. Keeping calm is the secret of passing your test.


→ As long as ……….… .
79. Thanks to her parents’ encouragement, she entered the beauty contest .
→ Had it ……….… .
80. You’re the best football player in our school.



→ No one ……….… .


II. Use the suggested words and phrases to write complete sentences about Tet holiday in
Vietnam. ( 10 points)


81. Tet holiday/ celebrate/ first day / Lunar New Year.


82. Some weeks / New Year, / Vietnamese / clean / houses / paint / walls. Then/ decorate/ house
apricot blossoms/ peach blossoms.


83. New things/ buy/ occasion /as clothes/shoes/ food.


84. One / two days / festival, people make Chung Cake / be/ traditional cake.
85. / New Year’s Eve, / whole family /get together / a dinner.


86. / New Year morning, / young member / the family /pay / respects / the elders.
87. In return, they /receive lucky money /wrap / red tiny envelopes.


88. After/ people go / visit / neighbors, friends / relatives.



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89. Tet/ not only/ time/ people/ relax/ after/ year/ hard work/ also/help family members/ friends/
relatives/ get closer.


III. “Mother’s Day and Father’s Day are not celebrated in Vietnam, but it is necessary for
Vietnamese people to have a day for parents .”


Write a passage of about 120 – 150 words to your friend to share your idea. (10 points)



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